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[Opinions] Re: Rosalind
Well as far as I know, Rosamund is said with a long o. I'm not sure that differentiation from the word Rose means it can't be pronounced the same way.
--"We are all horrible and wonderful and figuring it out." - Harris Wittels
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Yeah, because it actually is Ros- = Rose, not Ros- = Horse! Either Rosa munda = elegant rose or Rosa mundi = Rose of the world, depending on one's opinion of King Henry II's alleged girlfriend, said to have been terminated with extreme prejudice by Eleanor of Aquitaine but in fact a later legend. Either way, it's Latin, not Germanic.And, surely, one pronounces Rosa with a long o?
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According to the database the Ros- in Rosamund also comes from hros. But I would guess that with both Rosalind and Rosamund, they were influenced by "rosey" meanings, spellings, and probably pronunciations. Rosalinda, for instance, is pronounced RO-sa-linda, and it's not incorrect - especially because it also means "pretty rose" in Spanish. This database even has Rosalind pronounced with a long O from that influence.Basically, I was just trying to say that past etymology of an old language doesn't necessarily dictate current pronunciation in modern languages.
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Not according to the database entry on Rosamund. It is Germanic and it originally meant horse evidently.

This message was edited 7/21/2016, 11:19 AM

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No, Rosamund and Rosalind are both with a short o, at least in the UK. Maybe it's different in America?
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Not to me.
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I honestly don't know because I've never heard it IRL haha. That's good to know!
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